CPR2020 wrote on Wed Mar 10, 2021 12:09pm:
HI we sold it first to buy the spanish house
Should be no then
CPR2020 wrote on Wed Mar 10, 2021 12:09pm:
HI we sold it first to buy the spanish house
Should be no then
Posted: Wed Mar 10, 2021 1:31pm
Helpful member
CPR2020 wrote on Wed Mar 10, 2021 12:09pm:
HI we sold it first to buy the spanish house
You said in an earlier post that you had been living in Spain for 6 years and residents here for the last 4 years. I'm not sure if HMRC would regard your UK property as your main residence for all of this period, and definitely not if you have been letting it. You should at least have a reduction in any CGT payable to take account of the period between when you purchased it and when it ceased to be your main residence.
It's obviously a complicated situation which a UK accountant would be able to advise on, at least for any UK tax liability.
Posted: Wed Mar 10, 2021 8:46pm
Legendary helpful member
Hi John52,
No. The basic personal tax allowance in Spain is €5,500 (UK equivalent is £12,500). However, Spain also has a raft of additional allowances, some of which are age related, so someone of pensionable age would have additional tax-free allowances added to the basic.
Kind regards,
Kim
Posted: Wed Mar 10, 2021 9:02pm
Legendary helpful member
CPR2020 wrote on Wed Mar 10, 2021 12:09pm:
HI we sold it first to buy the spanish house
Hi CPR2020,
I asked my tax advisor, Abaco Advisers, about CGT in Spain on your UK property sale, in view of you being tax resident in Spain for several years before you sold your UK property:
"Regarding Capital Gains Tax, you will be taxed here in Spain on any Capital Gain made and any tax paid in the United Kingdom will be deducted from any liability here under the Double Taxation treaty"
This concurs with what I'd already told you.
Kind regards,
Kim
Posted: Wed Mar 10, 2021 9:10pm
Hi, you sold “a” house, was it the family home or do you have another? There is no CGT when you sell your family home. If it was not the family home you are liable for tax on Sale price - Purchase price ( less expenses ).
Advertisement - posts continue below
Posted: Wed Mar 10, 2021 9:27pm
Legendary helpful member
Cardhu59 wrote on Wed Mar 10, 2021 9:10pm:
Hi, you sold “a” house, was it the family home or do you have another? There is no CGT when you sell your family home. If it was not the family home you are liable for tax on Sale price - Purchase price ( less expenses ).
Are you referring to UK CGT rules?
The original poster has been tax resident in Spain for 4 years before they sold their UK property last year.
Kind regards,
Kim
Posted: Wed Mar 10, 2021 9:33pm
Kimmy11 wrote on Wed Mar 10, 2021 9:27pm:
Are you referring to UK CGT rules?
The original poster has been tax resident in Spain for 4 years before they sold their UK property last year.
Read more...
Kind regards,
Kim
Sorry, I assumed you had sold up in the UK.
Posted: Wed Mar 10, 2021 9:35pm
Cardhu59 wrote on Wed Mar 10, 2021 9:33pm:
Sorry, I assumed you had sold up in the UK.
This may help....
Posted: Wed Mar 10, 2021 9:41pm
Legendary helpful member
Cardhu59 wrote on Wed Mar 10, 2021 9:33pm:
Sorry, I assumed you had sold up in the UK.
They have sold in the UK, but are tax resident in Spain, so Spanish CGT applies too, in line with the Dual Taxation Agreement between the two countries.
Kind regards,
Kim
Posted: Wed Mar 10, 2021 10:38pm
GordonH605 wrote on Thu Mar 4, 2021 9:21pm:
The rules for Capital Gains Tax applicable to property are fairly simple and clearly explained on the UK government web site. https://www.gov.uk/capital-gains-tax
If the property was in the UK then CGT is payable there. If it was sold after 06-Apr. 2020 the tax should have been paid within one month of the sale. There are a few allowable deductions to calculate the tax payable, but the mortgage isn't one of them....
Read more...
...
Seeing that it was your only home that you sold and do not own another property you do not need to pay CGT you only pay CGT if you own two properties and sell one of them that's my belief anyway.